为您找到与江西成人高考录取线什么时候出相关的共76个结果:
2023年江西成人高考成绩公布时间(江西成考分数线)
2023年江西成人高考录取分数线预计在11月底到12月初公布。具体的公布日期会根据部门的安排而有所变化,考生们需要密切关注江西省招生考试院官网的消息。同时,也建议考生做好两手准备,如果初试成绩未达到国家线或报考院校的录取分数线,可以考虑进行复试或调剂。
成人高考题目本身不难,许多同学没有通过的原因:一是因为考试本身很严格,很规范,投机取巧的机会几乎没有。二是因为成人高考考生本身程度不高,除去因为特殊原因高考失利的学生以外,大多数都是不爱学习的人,再加上有一段时间没有学习了,没有很强的毅力,是很难成功的。
江西成人高考的参与者,很多都是离开学校多年的在职人员,因此,对于他们来说,考题的难度还是比较大的。但是,一部分应届的毕业生参与考试,相对来说,难度不算太大。
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浙江2023年成人高考专升本录取分数线公布
2023年浙江成人高考专升本的录取分数线为100分。其中,文史、中医类专业的录取分数线为184分;艺术类专业的录取分数线为129分;理工类专业的录取分数线为110分。
登录浙江省教育考试院网站(https://www.zjzs.net/)。
进入“系统导航-录取查询-2023年普通高等学校招生录取信息查询”栏目。
输入本人报名序号、信息查询密码、系统随机生成的验证码,即可查询个人普通高校招生投档、录取信息。
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江西2023中考语文真题及参考答案(word版)
2023年江西中考语文试卷难度适中,试卷内容符合教材内容,并且在一定程度上有所扩展,总体题型变动不大。以下是小编为大家收集的关于2023江西中考语文真题及参考答案的相关内容,供大家参考!
说明:
1.全卷满分120分,考试时间150分钟。
2.请按试题序号在答题卡相应位置作答,答在试题卷或其它位置无效。
语文试题卷第1页(共6页)
一、语言文字运用(本大题共6小题,10分)
【1~2题答案】
【答案】1. A 2. B
【3~5题答案】
【答案】3. B 4. D 5. A
【6题答案】
【答案】C
二、古代诗文阅读(本大题共6小题,20分)
(一)
【7~8题答案】
【答案】7. A 8. 示例:驿楼之花香气四溢
(二)
【9~11题答案】
【答案】9. ①. 帽子 ②. 所以 ③. 穿衣服(穿)
10. (1)这三个方面,就是君子的日常行为。
(2)国家有道义,就顺从命令(行事)。
11. 示例:司马迁崇敬晏子是因为:晏子有力行节俭、言行一致、正直谨慎等君子品行;事齐三朝,被推重;能三世显名于诸侯。
(三)默写(6分)
【12题答案】
【答案】 ①. 潮平两岸阔 ②. 风正一帆悬 ③. 大漠孤烟直 ④. 长河落日圆 ⑤. 不以物喜 ⑥. 不以己悲
三、现代文阅读(本大题共9小题,30分)
(一)
【13~15题答案】
【答案】13. B 14. C
15. 示例:我认为,创造非常重要。因为创造能给人带来幸福感;创造是解决问题的路径和方法;创造能够造出真善美,造出不平凡,造出不单调。
(二)
【16~17题答案】
【答案】16. C 17. B
(三)
【18~21题答案】
【答案】18. ①. 找主管部门,亮军功章,诉说反对理由 ②. 义愤填膺 ③. 坐在门边,擦洗墓碑 ④. 伤痛
19. 示例:(1)“他”是一个战功卓著的老英雄;是一个对战友有着深厚感情的老兵;是一个执着明理、顾全大局的老人。
(2)“孙子”的言行让“他”释然,涌动一份幸福。 20. D
21. 示例:文中画横线语句描写了烈士陵园苍翠的松柏,营造了庄严肃穆的氛围,烘托了“他”哀痛、怀念之情。
四、名著阅读(本大题共3小题,10分)
【22题答案】
【答案】D
【23题答案】
【答案】示例:《儒林外史》中范进中举这一情节,胡屠户一巴掌治好了范进的疯病,众人一同回家,“屠户见女婿衣裳后襟滚皱了许多,一路低着头替他扯了几十回”这一细节,作者写来不动声色,却细腻地描绘出科举制度下一人飞黄腾达之后,乡人亲友诚惶诚恐、毕恭毕敬、唯恐逢迎不及的画面。由此,作者深刻揭露出古代读书人在“功名利禄”的诱惑下的不同形貌,对科举的弊端、礼教的虚伪进行了深刻的批判和嘲讽。
【24题答案】
【答案】示例:这段文字介绍萤火虫后腿爪子的特点及用途,不仅准确细致,体现作者的探究精神,还用白色玫瑰花作比,生动形象,兼有理趣和情趣。
五、写作(50分)
【25题答案】
【答案】例文一:
合影
又到了毕业季。时间留不住的点滴美好,照片做了最忠实的记录。翻开我的青春相册,三年初中生活变成了一沓甜蜜回忆,而那一张张合影,最是让我沉醉难忘。
这一张,是我刚进初中时与林老师的合影。
那时候的我,扎着两个小辫子,脸上还有一丝羞怯,而林老师搂着我的肩膀,眼中含着暖意。我记得那是一节劳动课,林老师正带着同学们在办公室旁的花圃里除草,大家忙碌着,热闹着,而我,偏安一隅。因为成绩和容貌,我不够自信,性格也不开朗,班级存在感很低。我拔着草,捡拾着落叶,转眼簸箕就满了一半。耳朵里,传来同学们欢快的笑声。
“小雅,你的劳动成果很丰硕呀!”突然,林老师走到了我身边。我嗫嚅着,却不知该怎么接话。林老师看出了我的胆怯和尴尬,和我讲起她小时候的故事。我不需要回答,却也忍不住用眼神回应着林老师。
劳动结束时,有人说想拍照,林老师便拿出了手机让同学们自由发挥。当我内心正羡慕同学们的时候,林老师叫班长给我们来一张。后来,林老师把全部照片洗出来了,特意把这张合影送给了我。我还记得她在班上说:“我最喜欢和同学们拍照了。因为和你们在一起,我才如此美丽!”
而我就是从那时起,逐渐读懂了林老师的良苦用心,逐渐变得阳光起来……
这一张,是初三元旦晚会时我和小绿的合影,我们俩靠着头,比着心,笑得无比灿烂。
小绿是从郊区转过来的,刚开始和我读初一时的性格很像。林老师特意让我做她的同桌。我怎么会不知道林老师的用意呢?课后,我主动找小绿聊天,放学时我总是等她一起回家。小绿英语不好,我陪她一起背单词、刷题。渐渐地,小绿向我打开了心扉,和同学们也开始热络起来。
初三元旦晚会那天,小绿从家里带来好多冻米糖,是她妈妈从老家带来的。她给林老师和每位同学的手上都放了一块,说特别感谢大家,让她的心品尝到了和冻米糖一样的甜。就在那一刻,林老师举起手机说要给我们拍张照,我们不约而同伸出了手,头挨着头,比了颗心,相视而笑……
我一页页翻过去,一张张合影背后,一个个暖心的瞬间扑面而来。世界这么大,还是遇见了你。和你在一起,我才如此美丽……
例文二:
合作方能共赢
有一游戏名为“山羊过独木桥”,两人从桥的两端相对而行,相遇,对抗,最终一人落桥,另一人胜利。殊不知,世上仍存在另一种过桥方式:相遇,拥抱,转身换位,用合作换取双赢。
世界那么大,人与人相遇实属不易,何必非要争个你死我活呢?在竞争中拥抱,以合作求共赢。
沿着历史巨轮辗过的印记追寻,追寻到那纷纷扰扰的战国。刀光剑影,群雄争霸,逐鹿中原。是什么使赵国在不断的纷战中占有一席之地?一切只因将相和。廉颇和蔺相如和谐相处,武有廉颇,文有蔺相如,二人相互配合,救赵国于水深火热之中,拒强秦予国门之外。假使廉颇与蔺相如为争职位高低不断冲突,那赵国内部定不能安定。国不安定,敌国的侵占是轻而易举的,只怕赵国就会沦为历史的一颗不起眼的尘埃了吧。正是由于两人的合作,才赢得了赵国国泰民安的局面,而他们的美名,也能流传至今。
“滚滚长江东逝水”。历史的浪花淘出了一个个英雄。西汉的鼎盛,与将才间的通力合作离不开关系。你看,张良善将将,韩信善将兵,二人配合,才有了“运筹帷幄之中,决胜千里之外”的成功,才有了汉王朝的统一兴盛。若没有他们二人的合作,任凭刘邦如何多智多谋,也是无法让西楚霸王项羽败于垓下,自刎乌江的,张良与韩信的拥抱与合作,不仅使他们建立了不朽的功业,更使历史的星空中多了颗熠熠闪烁的王朝之星。
硝烟弥漫,国之危亡,何人拯救?在那战火四起的抗日年代,与共产党放下内部纷争,携手合作,使抗日队伍不断壮大,终把日寇赶出国土。若是没有两党的亲密合作,那日寇的铁骑定将中国国土全部践踏,那我们又如何迎来新中国的成立,我们又怎么会有如今幸福安逸的生活?正是两党的合作,才为抗日的胜利奠定了基础,使中国有实力傲立于世界之林。
我们应明白,“一枝独秀不是春,百花齐放春满园”。在竞争中拥抱,以给作换取双赢,去迎接美好的春天,才能开辟灿烂的未来。
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2023年江西省中考语文试题及答案解析(word版)
2023年江西中考语文试卷难度适中,试卷内容符合教材内容,并且在一定程度上有所扩展,总体题型变动不大。以下是小编为大家收集的关于2023年江西省中考语文试题及答案解析的相关内容,供大家参考!
中考要熟悉考点情况
考前可对考点外围进行实地踏查,明确考点具体位置,熟悉考点周边环境,在充分考虑天气、交通等因素的基础上,科学规划出行路线,合理安排出行时间、出行方式,保证提前到达中考考试地点。
中考要做好安全提示
中考考试期间,要提醒孩子注意人身安全,往返中考考点路上要遵守交通规则,避免只顾匆忙赶路而出现麻痹大意情况。提示孩子不要参加对抗性比较强的运动项目,以免发生身体损伤给考试造成影响。
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2023年江西财经大学各省录取分数线(一览)
高考录取分数线,是指普通高等学校招生全国统一考试录取分数线。该分数线,每年高考结束后,由省级教育招生主管部门统计后公布。那么江西财经大学2023年录取分数线是多少?接下来一起了解下。
江西财经大学属于一本大学,该校是一所财政部、教育部、江西省人民政府共建,以经济、管理类学科为主,法、工、文、理、农、教育、哲学、历史、艺术等学科协调发展的高等财经学府。
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2023年成人高考专升本《高等数学二》真题真题及答案
2023年成人高考专升本高等数学二考试时间为10月21日14:30-17:00。以下是小编为大家收集的关于2023年成人高考专升本《高等数学二》真题真题及答案的相关内容,供大家参考!
高等数学一、高等数学二、高等数学三通常是大学数学课程中的三个阶段。
高等数学一通常包括以下内容:极限、连续性、微分学、积分学和微积分学初步等。
高等数学二通常包括以下内容:常微分方程、多元函数微积分学、多元函数微积分中的常微分方程及其应用、级数及其应用、傅里叶级数和傅里叶变换等。
高等数学三则通常包括以下内容:向量、空间解析几何、多元函数微积分学综合应用、曲线积分、面积分、空间积分及其应用、向量场、级数、场论、群论等。
总体来说,高等数学这门课程是从微积分和数学分析开始,逐渐发展到更加复杂的数学分支,如常微分方程、傅里叶级数和变换、向量、解析几何、级数、场论和群论等。各个阶段中,难度会逐渐加深,并且数学分支也会逐渐扩展,因此,学习时需要按照一定的顺序依次学习,以确保对数学知识的逐步认识和掌握。
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2023成人高考高数一真题及答案解析考生回忆版
成人高考高等数学一和二的区别体现在学习内容不同、知识程度要求不同和考试内容不同等方面,一般来说高数二比高数一简单。以下是小编为大家收集的关于2023成人高考高数一真题及答案解析的相关内容,供大家参考!
高等数学选择、填空的重要性选择题和填空题共20题,选择题10题40分,填空题10题40分,共80分。要敢于放弃部分大题,只要前面选择题和填空题的绝大部分会做,后面的很多大题一样就会做,成考没有任何问题。
我们在做题过程中,要保持字迹工整,书写不要太潦草,如果字迹书写过于潦草,就算答题正确了,评分老师都看不清楚答案,可能会因此丢分或者被扣分。
无论任何题型,想办法往最可能的答案写,无论懂否,一定要往下写,尽量多写。不能是空白。可以按照题目,变化一下公式,能顺着下来多少就是多少,最后一定把答案写上,假如真的不懂,可以随便想一个写上,当然也是根据自己的判断,有些答案是0或者1,有些函数解。
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2023年成人高考高升专《数学》试题及答案(回忆版真题)
成人高考,作为一项国家级的大型考试,承载着无数考生的梦想和期望。经过一上午努力奋斗,2023年10月份成人高考数学科目已经考完,下面小编为大家整理了2023年成人高考高升专《数学》试题及答案,这些都是由考生回忆整理的,仅供参考!
一、选择题(每题5分,17题,共85分)
1、一般来说前面几道题非常容易,可以把4个选项往题目里面套,看哪个答案符合,就是正确答案。
2、据统计:17题选择题,ABCD任意一个选项成为正确答案的次数为3-5次。
(1)一题都不会写,也一定要全部的答满,不能全部写一样的答案这样会一分都没有;
(2)只会写1-2题,剩下的15题都写跟自己懂写题的答案不一样的选项,这样至少可以得20分。例如,会写的题一题选A,一题选B,那么不懂写的15题都写C或者D。
(3)懂写3题以上,看看自己懂写的答案中ABCD哪个选项出现的次数少,那么不懂写的题目都写那个选项,这样至少可以得30分以上。
二、填空题(每题4分,4题,共16分)
一般出现其中有一题答案是0,1,2的可能性很大,实在每题都不会写,就4题都写0或1或2,但写1的概率相对0、2会高一点。
如果你时间充足的话,可以把0,1,2套进答案可能是整数的题目里面试试,这样运气好就能做对一两题。
三、解答题(49分)
完全不懂也不要放弃解答题的分数,解答题的特点是一层一层往下求解,最终求出一个答案。
有些题目,我们可以把题目中给出的公式,变化一下,能顺着下来多少就是多少,把所想的步骤写上去,反正都思考了,不写白不写,写了就有可能得分。
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2023全国成人高考高起专《数学》真题及答案考生回忆版
成人高考,作为一项国家级的大型考试,承载着无数考生的梦想和期望。经过一上午努力奋斗,2023年10月份成人高考数学科目已经考完,下面小编为大家整理了2023年成人高考政治真题及参考答案,这些都是由考生回忆整理的,仅供参考!
成人高考是成人高校招生的全国统一考试,是选拔合格毕业生进入高等教育是成人高校的入学考试,成人高考和普通高考一样,是国家选拔人才的考试。成立之初,主要解决在职人员的学历教育和继续教育问题。大部分参与者是成人,这也是国家高等教育的重要组成部分。
成人高考分高起专、高起本、专升本,选拔要求因层次、地域、学科、专业的不同而有所区别。学习形式存在全脱产(全日制)、半脱产(业余)、函授(自学为主,集中面授为辅)三种形式。
其中成考专升本是成人高考组成部分,属国民教育系列,列入国家招生计划,国家承认学历,参加全国招生统一考试,由各省、自治区统一组织录取。成考专升本指专科毕业离开学校后,参加全国统一的成人考试,每年与成人高考同时报名考试,最后颁发的学历是成人本科学历,符合学位要求颁发学士学位。毕业证盖所学习高校章,证书上显示“成人教育脱产或函授”字样。
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2023年成人高考专升本语文真题含答案解析(考生回忆版)
2023年的成人高考考试已经在10月22日圆满结束,几家欢喜几家愁,同学们,你们都考得怎么样呢?试卷都写满了吗?下面,小编为大家整理了2023年成人高考专升本语文真题含答案解析,这些都是由考生回忆整理的,仅供参考!
通过率基本在90%左右。可能会有考生质疑90%的高通过率。其实,成人高考主要面向的是已经工作的在职人员,大部分考生由于工作的需要想要提升学历,获得更好的发展,基于大部分考生的学习基础,考试难度都不会很大。
成人高考是我国成人高等学校选拔合格的毕业生以进入更高层次学历教育的入学考试,考生应当对考试予以重视。所以考生在成人高考复习时要认认真真,考试时沉着冷静,不要心存侥幸心理,要坚信自己在考前已经准备好了,通过考试就不会很难。
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2023成人高考专升本语文真题试卷带答案解析(考生回忆版)
2023年全国成人高校招生统一考试时间为10月21日、22日,高起本考试科目有4门,高起专考试科目有3门,专升本考试科目有3门。以下是小编为大家收集的关于2023年成人高考专升本语文真题试卷带答案解析的相关内容,供大家参考!
文科:记忆要善于“抓大放小”
文科科目很多记忆的内容来不得半点含糊,目前要充分利用一切可以利用的时间来突击这些内容。有备考专家指出:记忆的内容要注意“抓大放小”,不能“胡子眉毛一把抓”。在最后这段时间里,不要纠缠于细微的知识点,而是要抓住大的方面。例如每个章节的重点问题及主要观点,起码要在脑中形成一个整体的知识框架,看到题目就知道该到哪一部分去找答案。
理科:反复练习提高速度
在谈到理科的最后复习时,专家们普遍认为,在冲刺阶段,理科要注意练习,提高计算能力。根据以往经验,有的考生会做题目,但是运算太慢,结果影响了发挥。另外做题目不要盲目,不必做太多,要精选做题,每套题做完后要分析总结,吃透后再做下一套,反复练习纠错,才能真正提高。在做题的过程中,如果发现自己的某个知识点还没有掌握,要立即查漏补缺。
语文:今年作文将做重大调整
从每年的考试状况看,很多平时成绩不错的考生在考场上都会把握不准考试时间,尤其以作文为甚,经常写不完。作为专升本考生,很多都有社会工作经验,届时只须正常发挥,表现出一定的思想深度,就可以取得不错的分数。
专家们特别提醒考生,写作文时要把握好文章主旨,无论任何文体,都要把握其中心思想;此外,重点理解材料内涵;第三,作文要有一定深度。
数学:答题时遇到难题就放弃
首先要注意复习概念。大纲是所有考生都需要彻底理一遍的首要复习材料。所有的概念都须搞清记熟,查漏补缺。在做题的时候,要强调做题质量。从9月份开始,做题是考生这一段时间必须勤加练习的重要内容。综合题、模拟题、历年真题都是最后阶段的必练题目。
从近几年的数学题来看,没有很难的题,考题以常规题为主,只要考生能够将常规题答准确,一般就能够拿到120分左右。
英语:注意多做练习题
从《考试大纲》来看,语音题占7%,词汇语法题占27%,完型填空占13%,阅读理解占40%,短文写作占13%。考生要想在专升本中取得好成绩,必须在最后阶段多做练习题,同时多看英文书报,这样提高词汇量。通过做题,可以体会到写作者的思路,并领会出题人的思路。需要提醒考生的是,在做题的过程中,如果发现自己的答案与标准答案不符,这时考生就不要固执地坚持自己的理解,要调整自己的思路。复习语法知识时,不能只顾记忆语法知识,要通过做题发现出题人是通过什么方式来考某一个知识点的。
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江西应用技术职业学院单招录取分数线2023
本文为大家整理的是江西应用技术职业学院2023年单招录取分数线,供大家参考,如有异议,还请以各省市教育考试院和学校公布的信息为准。
江西应用技术职业学院(Jiangxi College of Applied Technology),位于国家历史文化名城——江西省赣州市,是由江西省人民政府主办,江西省自然资源厅主管的全日制公办高职学院。
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2023成人高考数学常真题(带参考答案)
成人高考的数学科目考试内容主要包括代数、三角函数、平面解析几何、数形结合等方面的知识,考察的是学生的基础知识和应用能力。以下是小编为大家收集的关于成人高考数学常考试题及答案的相关内容,供大家参考!
成人高考需要参加全国统一考试。每年成考考试时间为10月中下旬,考生应提前了解自己准考证上有详细信息,并确认乘车路线,以便耽搁考试。
成人高考成绩一般在成人高考考试结束一个月后,可凭准考证上网或学校函授站查询自己的成人高考成绩,以及当年成人高考录取的最低录取分数线。
在成人高考成绩出来都的不久就会成来成人高考录取结果。考生可以在网上或学校函授站查询自己的录取结果。确认录取后缴纳第一年的学费。
成考的学习形式分为函授、业余、脱产。成考是有固定学制的,高升专和专升本层次的学制年限为2.5年—3年,高升本的学制年限为5年。
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2023年成人高考语文高频考点(成考语文考点)
成人高考语文的考试内容有基础知识题、现代文阅读、文言文阅读、诗歌阅读、作文、文学常识、史哲学。以下是小编为大家收集的关于2023年成人高考语文高频考点的相关内容,供大家参考!
1.函授
函授教学主要采用有计划、有组织、有指导的自学方式,并采用集中组织的面对面教学系统。函授教学的主要环节包括:辅导与答疑、作业、实验、实践、考试、课程设计、毕业设计和答辩。
2.业余
这与函授教学的要求和目标是一致的。业余学生一般在高校驻地招收,上课时间安排在晚上或周末。
3.脱产
脱产学习是指在校园内的全日制学习,其管理模式与普通高校相同。对于学生来说,有正常而相对固定的教室和管理要求,有稳定的寒暑假安排。
成人高考考试难吗
成人高考试题难度不大。成考专升本考试中有3门考试科目,其中政治还有英语都是统考的科目,简单的题目占总分数的40%,中等难度的占50%,最后难度比较大的题目只占10%,所以,就算舍弃那些难度比较大的题目,集中精力去攻克那些比较简单的题目,基本上是没有问题的。
成考录取分数线不高。成人高考有录取照顾政策。国家为了鼓励大家进入社会后继续学习和提升自己的学历,对成考录取有照顾政策。
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2023成人高考各科目备考方法(成考备考技巧)
成人高等学校招生全国统一考试(简称成人高考),是为中国各类成人高等学校选拔合格的毕业生以进入更高层次学历教育的入学考试。以下是小编为大家收集的关于2023成人高考各科目备考方法的相关内容,供大家参考!
成考的合格分因报考层次不同,合格分也是有所不同的,高起专、专升本一般只需要100—180即可录取,高起本的录取分需要高一点。
成人高考分高起专、高起本、专升本,选拔要求因层次、地域、学科、专业的不同而有所区别,因此它的合格分也是不同的。
高起专的考语数外3门,150分一门,总分450分,一般100—160分就可以录取了;
高起本的考语数外文理综,150分一门,总分600分,一般300分就可以录取了;
专升本除了政治、英语必考外,还有一门专业相关的科目,150分一门,总分450分,一般100—160即可录取。
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初三时初中最重要的一年,同学们要如何准备即将到来的中考呢?下面是读文网小编为大家带来的关于江西省中考英语试题,希望会给大家带来帮助。
一、听力测试(25分)
现在是试听时间。请听一段对话,然后回答问题。
What is the boy going to buy?
A. Some juice. B. Some oranges. C. Some apples.
答案是C。
A)请听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(第1-4小题每小题0.5分;第5-8小题每小题1分,共6分)
1. When does the boy do his homework?
A. In the morning. B. At night C. In the afternoon.
2. Where did the man eat?
A. At home. B. At school. C. At a restaurant.
3. Which sport is Jim’s favorite?
A. Swimming. B. Football. C. Running.
4. What’s the weather like in Shanghai?
A. Rainy. B. Cloudy. C. Snowy.
5. How does the man come to the university each day?
A. By train. B. On foot. C. By car.
6. Who likes ice-cream best?
A. Tina. B. Bill C. Sandra.
7. How much do the hat and the dress cost?
A. $33. B. $36 C. $37
8.What does the boy mean?
A. The girl can’t find her jeans.
B. The boy needs a pair of jeans.
C. The boy advises her to wear the jeans.
B)请听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。(每小题1分,共14分)
请听第1段材料,回答第9、10小题。
9. How long does it take to go to the museum?
A. Fifteen minutes. B. Twenty minutes. C. Ten minutes.
10. Where is the museum?
A. On Long Street. B. Behind the park. C. Behind the bank.
请听第2段材料,回答第11、12小题。
11.What is Sally’s son doing?
A. He is taking a vacation.
B. He is busy studying.
C. He is working at a company.
12.When is Sally’s husband leaving for China?
A. Next Monday. B. Next Wednesday. C. Next Friday.
请听第3段材料,回答第13至 第15小题。
13. How often does the club have painting classes?
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three time a week.
14. How much does each lesson cost?
A. $10. B. $15. C.$20.
15.What can we get from the conversation?
A. The painting classes go on for a month.
B. The man is a worker at the painting club.
C. The club members pay $70 for the whole classes.
请听第4段材料,回答第16至18小题。
16. What does the girl do?
A. A reporter. B. A teacher. C. A student.
17. Why does the girl need a volunteer job?
A. Because she wants to travel next year.
B. Because she wants to write for a newspaper.
18. Which is true according to the conversation?
A. The girl seems not to get a volunteer job.
B. The girl gets a volunteer job as an English teacher.
C. The girl can work for the newspaper for eighteen months.
请听第5段材料,回答第19至第22小题。
19. Who is Sam?
A. He is Laura’s father. B. He is Laura’s friends. C. He is Laura’s uncle.
20. When will there be a birthday party for Laura’s father?
A. On March 10th. B. On April 11th. C. On May 12th.
21.What does Laura’s father usually do on Saturday afternoon?
A. He plays tennis. B. He goes to a party. C. He visits his friends.
22. What can we get from the monologue?
A. Sam is asked to arrive by 6 o’clock.
B. Laura’s father doesn’t know the party.
C. The birthday of Laura’s father is on Saturday.
C)请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成5个句子,每个句子一空,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。(每小题1分,共5分)
23. Green school _______ to tell the radio station about the concert.
24. The concert will be held on ________ evening.
25. The music starts at 7:30 and will finish at about ________.
26. Everyone is going to have a(n) __________ evening.
27. Green school will buy some new _________ for children.
一、听力测试答案(25分)(试题略,大家可以通过阅读全文的方式下载PDF完整版)
1~5:ABACB
6~10:ABCAC
11~15:BCBAC
16~22:CBACBAB
23、has phoned
24、Sunday
25、8:30
26、exciting
27:school things
二、单项填空(8分)
请阅读下面各小题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分,共8分)
28. Some old people need a _______ because they feel lonely.
A. gift B. stick C. pet D. watch
【答案】C
【解析】句子的意思是老人独自生活会感觉孤单,因此需要有宠物陪伴。本剧考查的是名词的意思。A:礼物;B:棍子;C:手表
29. Last night, the shop was closed she didn’t buy any chocolate.
A. so B. if C. or D. when
【答案】A
【解析】句子的意思是那个商店晚上关门,因此她没买到巧克力。本题考查的是连词意思的辨析。
30. The water dark and dirty. It’s no longer safe to drink.
A. became B. has become C. will become D. was becoming
【答案】B
【解析】句子的意思是这里水变得又脏又黑。已经不能继续安全饮用了。
31. I didn’t do very well in this exam. Unluckily, he did it .
A. worse B. badly C. better D. worst
【答案】A
【解析】根据句子的意思很容易做出判断。
32. — May I speak to Mrs. Black?
— Sorry, mum can’t come to the phone now. She a shower.
A. has B. had C. is having D. was having
【答案】C
【解析】句子的意思是我要和Mrs. Black通电话。她不能来接电话因为她在冲凉。
33. You take me to the station. My brother’s taking me.
A. can’t B. mustn’t C. shouldn’t D. don’t have to
【答案】D
【解析】句子的意思是你没必要陪着我去车站。我哥哥会来接我。所以选D。
34. He won in the story competition and his parents were very .
A. smart B. proud C. sorry D. upset
【答案】B
【解析】句子的意思是他比赛获胜了,所以父母非常骄傲和自豪。本题主要考查名词的含义,故选B。
35. I plan to build an unusual house. It out of old things.
A. is built B. has built C. was built D. will be built
【答案】D
【解析】句子的意思是我计划建一座与众不同的房子。 建造的时候会推陈出新。本题主要考查时态和被动语态。
三、完形填空(27分)
A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A 、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分,共15分)
Things like Hula hoops(呼啦圈)used to be very popular. Did you ever own any of these? If you didn’t, don’t feel too bad. They were all fads. A fad is something that becomes very 36 among a large number of people, but only for a short time. 37 can become a fad very quickly, but can stop being popular just as quickly. 38 it is no longer “cool,” a fad goes away. Anything can become a(n) 39 -fashion, food, music, technology, even language.
In the late 1970s, Erno Rubik, a professor was looking for a 40 way to teach his students about 3D objects. He 41 a six-color plastic object that would be called the Rubik’s Cube(魔方). The goal was to get each side of the cube a 42 color. It was very challenging. It took a few years for the toy to become popular, but then 43 , in 1982, it seemed everyone had one. People bought over a hundred million of the 44 .There were 50 books available that year offering solutions(解决办法). Then, just as suddenly as the craze (风尚) started, it 45 . By 1983, people were not interested in the Rubik’s Cube anymore, perhaps because so many people 46 had one in their home.
In 2012, a South Korean musician named Psy released a song called “ Gangnam (江南) Style.” The music video shows Psy pretending (假装) to horse-ride while he is dancing. In six months, it became the first Youtube (一视频网站) video ever to reach a billion views (观看). Six months after that, 47 went on to reach two billion views. The song and video started a worldwide 48 craze. “Gangnam Style” had a huge influence on world popular culture. U.S. President Barack Obama and U.K. Prime Minister David Cameron even 49 the dance. “Gangnam Style” became less and less popular, 50 the “Korean Wave” of culture remains popular all over the world.
36. A. useful B. popular C. valuable D. relaxing
37. A. Both B. Someone C. Something D. None
38. A. Although B. Whether C. Before D. When
39. A. invention B. fad C. goal D. dream
40. A. creative B. difficult C. traditional D. common
41. A. found B. bought C. invented D. borrowed
42. A. strange B. dark C. bright D. different
43. A. suddenly B. slowly C. exactly D. seriously
44. A. videos B. toys C. clothes D. books
45. A. spread B. appeared C. ended D. failed
46. A. already B. hardly C. especially D. only
47. A. he B. they C. we D. it
48. A. food B. dance C. language D. sport
49. A. depended on B. tried out C. gave up D. put off
50. A. then B. and C. but D. so
36、A. useful B. Popular C. ValuableD. relaxing
【答案】B
【解析】文章开头在讲过去呼啦圈很流行,结合上下文可知fad是一时流行的狂热,故答案选B最合适。
37、A. Both B. Someone C. SomethingD. None
【答案】C
【解析】句子的意思是什么东西很快变得很流行起来,但是只能盛极一时。把所给的几个不定代词放进句子里,只有something可以讲通,故选择C。
38、A. Although B. Whether C.Before D. When
【答案】D
【解析】从句子的意思“当这些东西不再酷的时候,所有的狂热都将消失殆尽”可以判断只有D是符合的。
39、A. invention B. Fad C. Goal D.dream
【答案】B
【解析】通过破折号可以判断填的词和fashion的意思是比较接近的,故选B。
40、A. creative B. Difficult C. TraditionalD. common
【答案】A
【解析】我们依旧使用把选项带入句子里来判断是否正确,困难的方法、传统的解决方式和一般的解决方法均不符合句意,只有不同寻常的方式和后面的3D objects能对应起来,故 选A。
41、A. found B. bought C. inventedD. borrowed
【答案】C
【解析】从句意可以判断Rubik’s Cube这个东西是他发明的,所以选C。
42、A. strange B. Dark C. Bright D.different
【答案】D
【解析】从一般的常识就可以判断正确答案是D,因为一般的魔方每一面的颜色都是不一样的。
43、A. suddenly B. Slowly C. ExactlyD. seriously
【答案】A
【解析】通过but这个词可以判断这里是一个比较大的转折,BCD放进句子里体现不出这种感觉,只有突然可以很好的表达这样一个意思,故选A。
44、A. videos B. Toys C. Clothes D.books
【答案】B
【解析】通过前面“It took a few years for the toy tobecome popular”可以判断这里人们购买的东西是玩具。故答案选B。
45、A. spread B. appeared C. endedD. failed
【答案】A
【解析】通过前半句一下子变成一种风尚开始流行,后半句比前半句的意思要更进一步,故选择A蔓延。
46、A. already B. Hardly C. EspeciallyD. only
【答案】A
【解析】通过句意很容易就能判断因为人们家里已经购买了很多类似的东西,所以不会对Rubik的魔方感兴趣,所以答案选A。
47、A. he B. They C. We D. it
【答案】D
【解析】通过上一句可以判断这句话是说骑马舞的点击量迅速超过20亿次,所以答案选D。
48、A. food B. Dance C. Language D.sport
【答案】B
【解析】根据上文Psy跳骑马舞可以判断这里选B最符合上下文的意思。
49、A. depended on B. tried out C.gave up D. put off
【答案】B
【解析】通过句意可以判断这里用尝试最合适。
50、A. then B. and C. but D. so
【答案】C
【解析】通过句意骑马舞越来越不流行,而汉语文化却一直活跃在世界各地可以判断这里是一个比较大的转折,所以用but。
B) 请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框中所给的词的适当形式填空,并写在答题卡的相应位置。每个词限用一次。(无需变形的为6小题,每小题1分;需要变形的为4小题,每小题1.5分。共12分。)
real noisy clean after work be area traffic also live
Many people have cars in the city. But pollution is a problem because of the 51 . Nowadays some downtown (市中心) areas around the world don’t have cars. These car-free zones (无车区) are 52 for people, bicycles, and public transportation only.
Eight million people 53 in the center of London and another two million people go to work there every day. The downtown area is very 54 with hundreds of cars, buses, and taxis, but there are 55 a lot of beautiful parks with free music concert. At lunchtime, many people go there for a rest 56 they get off work.
Parts of Tokyo are always crowded with hundreds of people – but no cars! These modern car-free zones are 57 popular and people like shopping there.
In the past, Bogota was polluted because there 58 lots of cars and traffic. Now the downtown area is car-free zone and the air is 59 ! Many people don’t have a car and half a million people take the bus 60 . There are lots of stores. It’s not expensive.
51【答案】traffic;【解析】前文提到很多人都有车,污染也因此而生,这里和车相近的词是traffic。
52【答案】areas;【解析】这里的areas来代指前文中的“these car free zones”
53【答案】live;【解析】句子的意思是有八百万的人生活在伦敦市中心,解答这道题需要掌握“live in”这个短语的意思。
54【答案】noisy;【解析】从后面上百辆的车很容易联想到会产生噪音,因此用noisy。
55【答案】also;【解析】根据前后文的意思:前面说车多吵,后面说公园有免费的音乐会,根据逻辑关系判断应该用“but”
56【答案】after;【解析】根据句子意思和一般的生活常识,很多人午饭时间,人们下班后会到公园里休息一下可以判断使用“after”。
57【答案】really;【解析】首先根据句子意思无车区真的流行了起来锁定使用real这个词,后面的popular是形容词,前面修饰时一般要使用副词,因此答案是really。
58【答案】were;【解析】There Be句型和时态的考查,从前半句可以判断这里要用到过去时。
59【答案】clean;【解析】通过句子意思“市中心区域”
60【答案】to work;【解析】根据句子意思许多人没有车还有50万人乘坐公交可以判断,这里使用work最合适,动词使用的是take,take something to do something使用什么干什么。所以这里使用”to work“。
四、阅读理解(40分)
A)请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题2分, 共30分)
A
61. How much should we pay for the first skurfing lesson?
A.$15 B.$30 C.$45 D.$60
【答案】A
【解析】通过文中“成年人30美元每小时。第一次课半价”可以判断第一次课的价钱是15美元。
62. Where can we learn music according to the ads above?
A. At Long Beach. B. At Skurfing Lessons.
【答案】D
【解析】通过“The State Theatre offers performingarts classes including: music, dance, drama.”句话即可判断答案是D。
C. At Art Attack Gallery. D. At State Theater Performing Arts Camp.
63. When does the State Theater offer performing arts classes?
A. 4th -13th July. B. 4th – 23rd August.
C. 24th July-2nd August. D. 14th July- 23rd August.
【答案】C
【解析】根据文章内容很容就就能判断C使正确的。
B
Carlton Joseph is a fashion designer(服装设计师), but not just any fashion designer. He appears on television, he writes books, and he owns his fashion house.
Born in 1980, Carlton started designing clothes when he was eleven. His father owned a clothes store, and Carlton used to work there at the weekend. Then he did a design course at college.
When he was 21, someone suggested doing a TV program. He made his first show “Carlton’s Clothes” in 2004, and he wrote his first book in the same year. Since then he has written four more. Carlton got married to TV producer Susan Mills in 2005.
Three months ago, Carlton started his new company. He called it “Design Carlton”.
At work Carlton always wears black trousers and a blank coat, but at home, or when he goes out, he wears clothes with bright colors (red, blue and yellow). He is especially crazy about new glasses, he buys a new pair every few weeks. “I like to look different every day,” he says.
Carlton started wearing glasses when he was twelve. He dyed(给……染色) his hair red when he was 18. It is still red, and this year, for the first time, he has grown a beard. “My wife likes it, that’s why” is his explanation. But his beard is black.
64. How old was Carlton when he wrote his first book?
A. 11 B.21 C. 24 D. 25
【答案】C
【解析】通过前文的他出生于1980年,后面2004年写了他的第一本书,通过计算可以得知是24岁。
65. What does the underlined word “it” refer to?
A. Carlton’s hair. B. Carlton’s beard.
C. Carlton’s coat. D. Carlton’s company.
【答案】B
【解析】通过上文他也有胡子了,可以判断后面他妻子喜欢的是他的胡子,因此选择B。
66. What is the main idea of paragraph 5?
A. Carlton likes to look different.
B. Carlton is a hardworking person.
C. Carlton is crazy about new glasses.
D. Carlton loves wearing colorful clothes.
【答案】A
【解析】通过文中Carlton上班的时候穿黑裤子蓝外套,在家或者出去的时候喜欢穿亮颜色的衣服以及Carlton说的话“like to look different every day”可以判断出这一段主要是讲Carlton喜欢不一样的生活方式。
67. Which of the following if true according to the passage?
A. Carlton is just a common fashion designer.
B. Carlton started his new fashion company in 2005.
C. Carlton made his first show after he got married to Susan.
D. Carlton got some design experience before going to college.
【答案】D
【解析】通过文章开头“but not just any fashiondesigner”可以判断A错误;通过文中他2005年结婚,而开公司是三个月之前,由于文中没有给出他结婚的具体日期,所以这里无法判断他开公司是在2004年还是2005年,所以排除B;通过文中他的第一场秀是在2004年,而结婚是2005年,所以是之后,因此排除C;正确答案是D,通过第二段他11岁就开始设计服装,可以看出他在上大学之前已经有了一些设计服装方面的经验,所以D正确。
C
Have you ever wanted to see the Great Wall of China, or win an Oscar for Best Director, or swim with dolphins(海豚)? If so, you are not alone. We all have things we want to do or achieve. These are part of our “bucket lists”. A bucket is a list of things that someone wants to experience in his or her lifetimes. These things can be big or small. Have you ever thought about what is on your bucket list?
Lindsay, 15, created her bucket list when she was 14. She has given her list serious thought. “I’ve always wanted to travel into space,” she says. “I don’t really want to be an astronaut. But I do want to go to space as a tourist. I want to see the Earth from above.” Other things on her list include being on TV, seeing her favorite band in concert, learning how to speak Portuguese(葡萄牙语), and living in a foreign country. “I’ve always wanted to live in Brazil. As part of my bucket list, I want to attend Carnival(狂欢节)in the capital of Brazil,” she says.
Jose, 16, recently created a list of things he wants to achieve. It changes sometimes he adds and takes away things because he wants to keep the number of the things at seven. One thing has stayed at number one, though: he wants to visit a movie set(影视基地). He would like to see the Harry Potter of The Hobbit movie sets. Other things on the list include being on TV, meeting his favorite sports star, living in a foreign country, skateboarding down a mountain, attending the World Cup, and backpacking across Europe. He would like to spend two months visiting Eastern Europe with his best friend Adam. “Maybe after I graduate from college,” says Jose.
Carrie, 14, also has a bucket list. She first created it when she was 12. She would like to live in a foreign country for at least two years. She also wants to learn as many foreign languages as possible. But the number one thing on her list is to see her favorite band in concert. She also wants to go on a trip and to visit a movie set. Her favorite movies are the Hunger Games and Star Wars. Carrie is confident she will do most or all of the things on her bucket list. “I’m only 14,” she says, “I have my whole life ahead of me!”
68. What is No.1 at Lindsay’s bucket list?
A. Visiting a movie sat. B. Living in Brazil.
C. Traveling to space. D. Seeing her favorite band.
【答案】C
【解析】略。
69. Who is probably the most interested in sports according to his or her bucket list?
A. Lindsay. B. Jose. C. Adam. D. Carrie.
【答案】B
【解析】通过文中Jose要去看世界杯可以看出答案是B。
70. What can we learn from the passage?
A. Lindsay and Carrie both love music.
B. Jose and Carrie are both space fans.
C. All the three teens wants to visit movie sets.
D. Jose and Adam hope to live in a foreign country.
【答案】A
【解析】通过第二段Lindsay要去看他最喜欢的乐队的音乐会和最后一段Carrie也要去看她最喜欢的乐队的音乐会,可以看出他们的共同爱好都是音乐。所以A是正确的。
71. What’s the main idea of the passage?
A. We should keep changing our bucket lists to meet our needs.
B. We must think about our bucket lists before they are created.
C. Our bucket lists can help us work towards achieving our goals.
D. Being confident is a key to our achievement on our bucket lists.
【答案】C
【解析】本题主要考查学生对于文章内容的判断和把握。通过文章内容判断C正确。#p#副标题#e#
D
In many countries, tattoos are in fashion (时尚). On TV you can often see a famous actor or musician with a tattoo on his arm or foot. Many sports players have them, too. In the US, tattoos are very popular. Forty percent of Americans aged between 26 and 40 have a tattoo, and 60 percent of customers in US tattoo parlors are women. These people are often professional people like doctor, teachers and lawyers.
However, tattoos are not modern. In fact, they are very old in human history. For example, archaeologists (考古学家) found a human in ice from 5,000 years ago. He had 57 tattoos on his back, ankles, legs, knees and feet. Tattoos were used for many different reasons. In ancient Egypt, people got tattoos because they were “beautiful”. But in ancient Rome, tattoos were negative (负面的) and put on criminals and prisoners. In India, tattoos were religious (宗教的).
In the 16th and 17th century, European sailors (船员) arrived on the islands of Polynesia. They saw tattoos for the first time. The people on the islands had tattoos on their shoulders, chests, backs and legs. Often the tattoos were of animals or natural features like a river or a mountain. The European sailors liked them and made their own tattoos, so the idea traveled to Europe. Tattoos in Polynesia are still important today. They show information about a person’s history, their island or their job.
So is there a connection (联系) between traditional tattoos and fashionable tattoos? And can you call tattoos a fashion? Chris Rainier is an expert in tattoos and his book Ancient Marks has photos of tattoos from all over the world. He thinks people in modern societies often have tattoos because they are a connection to the traditional world. But tattoos aren’t a fashion like clothes or a haircut because you can’t put them on and take them off again like a jacket or a hat. They are permanent (永久的) and for life.
72. When were tattoos brought to Europe?
A. 5,000 years ago. B. 60 years ago.
C. Until recently. D. In the 16th and 17th century.
【答案】D
【解析】由第三段第一句话可以判断。
73. What does the underlined word “parlors” mean?
A. School. B. Stores. C. Hospitals. D. Theaters.
【答案】B
【解析】由句中的customers可以判断这里B最合适。
74. What’s the writer’s opinion about tattoos?
A. Tattoos are religious in modern societies.
B. Tattoos connect tradition with fashion.
C. Tattoos are a fashion among famous people.
D. Tattoos show information about a person’s hobby.
【答案】B
【解析】由最后一段的内容可以判断答案B是正确的。
75. What would be the best title for the passage?
A. Tattoos' History. B. Tattoos in Polynesia.
C. Tattoos on a Human in Ice. D. Tattoos in Fashion and for Life.
【答案】D
【解析】通过文章内容得出文章的主旨即可很快判断D使最合适的标题。
B) 请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中,选择五个还原到文中,使短文意思通顺、结构完整,并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。(每小题2分,共10分)
Humans’ Greatest Achievements
The Earth is 4.5 billion years old, but the human race has lived on it for just 200,000 years. In that short time, we have achieved some amazing things.
76 The list is almost endless. The invention of the airplane has changed our lives. The discovery of antibiotics (抗生素) has saved the lives of millions of people. Can you imagine living without electricity? What about the printing press (印刷术)? Without the printing press, you wouldn’t be reading this. In the last 50 years, there have been great achievements in communication, such as radio, TV, computers, the Internet, and smartphones (智能手机). 77
What about the arts? The arts have brought pleasure to many people, but are the Beatles and Bach more important than antibiotics? 78
Finally, we must not forget humans’ early achievements. 79 We can’t imagine modern life without cooked food and cars.
What are humans’ greatest achievements? To answer the question, we need to decide what we mean by “great”. 80 Or is it just something that makes us say “Wow,” like the Great Wall? What do you think?
76【答案】E;【解析】由上下文可知76句是一个承上启下的句子,因此选E。
77【答案】G;【解析】由上文可知人类在通讯方面取得了很多成就,只有G项符合情境。
78【答案】F;【解析】78空前面是一个疑问句,而这一段主要是在讲艺术方面的成就,而78空也必然是同艺术科技成就的一个对比,因此选择F。
79【答案】D;【解析】根据下文提到了做饭方面的东西,前面一定也会提到,因此要选做饭有关的句子。
80【答案】B;【解析】由下文的“or”可以判断前面也是一个疑问句,因此选B。
五、补全对话(5分)
请阅读下面对话,根据对话内容补上所缺的句子,使对话通顺、合理,意思完整。并将答案填到答题卡的相应位置。(每空一句,每句1分,共5分)
( R=Receptionist (宾馆接待员), J=Jack )
R: Hello. 81
J: Could you give us the room number of Mrs. Taylor, please?
R: Is she a guest here at the hotel?
J: Yes, she’s our English teacher.
R: 82
J: She arrived yesterday.
R: Here we are …Room 602. Would you like me to call the room?
J: Yes, please. That would be great.
R: 83 She’s not in her room, I’m sorry.
J: Oh dear. I need to speak to her.
R: Why not look in the restaurant? It’s time for breakfast. 84
J: I’ve been there already. She’s not there. And she’s not there. And she’s not in the gift shop, either.
R: 85
J: Yes. Could you tell her to call me when she comes back?
R: Sure, no problem.
答案:
81.What can I do for you?
82.When did she arrive?
83.Please wait a moment.
84. Have you everbeen there to find her?
85. CanI take a message for you?
六、书面表达(15分)
书包伴我学习,伴我成长,某英文报以“My schoolbag”为题,举办中学生征文活动。请根据下列的图表信息,写一篇短文。内容包括:书包的外形特征、用途和书包背后的课业问题以及课余你期望做的事情。
提示:1、短文应包括图表中的全部信息,条理清楚,行文连贯,段落分明;
2、短文中不能出现真实的人名和地名;
3、词数不少于80,开头已给出,不计入总次数。
My Schoolbag
I have a schoolbag._________________________________________________
【高分范文】
My Schoolbag
I have a schoolbag. It is used for carryingthe school things, such as books, pens and so on. It looks like a luggage whichalways accompanies me in the world of knowledge.
My schoolbag is always by my side. However,it also brings us many problems. We have to do so much homework that we cannotget enough sleep. Instead of enjoying the wonderful weekends, we are forced tohave extra classes with it. If we have more spare time, we can take part insports and actives. Besides, we can develop hobbies and interest as well.
As a middle school student, I hope myschoolbag can share my joy and happiness rather than become a burden.
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同学们即将完成初中结算的学习生活,大家要如何复习呢?下面是读文网小编为大家带来的关于江西省中考英语试卷,希望会给大家带来帮助。
一、听力测试(25分)
现在是试听时间。请听一段对话,然后回答问题。
What is the boy going to buy?
A. Some juice. B. Some oranges. C. Some apples.
答案是C。
A)请听下面6段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卷上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分)
1.Who is playing basketball ?
A. Carla. B. Mario . C. Bill .
2.Where is Dave now ?
A. At home . B. At Paul’s . C. At school .
3.How can the man get to the airport ?
A. By taxi . B. By bus . C. By subway .
4.When did Eric come to Canada ?
A. 5 years ago . B. 12 years ago . C. 18 years ago .
5.Why does Jack like the film ?
A. The story is very interesting . B. The music is very beautiful .
C. The acting is very creative .
6.What does the woman mean ?
A. The hotel is fine but dark . B. She doesn’t like the hotel .
C.She wants to live in the hotel .
B)请听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话和独白后有几小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卷上将该项涂黑。听每段对话和独白前,你将有时间阅读各小题,每小题5秒钟,听完后各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。(每小题1分)
请听第1段材料,回答7、8小题。
7.What color does the woman like ?
A. Blue . B. Black . C. Red .
8.What size does she want ?
A. Size 9 . B. Size 10 . C. Size 11
请听第2段材料,回答第9、10小题。
9.How is the weather tomorrow ?
A. Rainy . B. Cloudy . C. Sunny .
10. What are they going to take to the beach ?
A. Sunglasses . B. An umbrella . C. A hat .
请听第3段材料,回答第11至第13小题。
11.When is Ann going to New York?
A. Next Monday. B. Next Tuesday . C. Next Friday.
12.Why is Ann going to New York?
A. Ann will buy a watch for Kevin.
B. The weather may be cold in New York..
C. Hospitals are not expensive in America.
请听第4段材料,回答第14至第16小题。
14.What does Mr.Smith do?
A. A college teacher. B. A newspaper reporter.
C. A computer programmer.
15.Which of the following is true?
A. Mr.Smith doesn’t sleep well. B. Mr.Smith works in a factory.
C.Mr.Smith exercises every day.
16.What can we get from the conversation?
A. Mr.Smith works too much .
B. Mr.Smith is tired of his new job.
C. Mr.Smith lives far from his office.
请听第5段材料,回答第17至第20小题。
17.How old is Liz?
A.15 . B.16 . C.17
18.Where are they having the birthday party?
A. In the house. B. In the party. C. In the garden.
19.What is Liz 's mum doing for the party?
A. Doing Liz 's hair. B. Blowing up balloons. C. Marking a chocolate cake.
20.What can we learn from the monologue?
A. Rita can not go to the party.
B. Liz is wearing a white dress to the party.
C. Liz 's grandparents are away on holiday.
C)请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卷的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。(每小题1分)
21.Frank is working at a ________shop when he is not at school.
22.He works ________a week from 7:00pm until 10:00pm.
23.On the first day ,he ___________where everything in the shop is.
24.He would like to buy ____________.
25.His phone number is ____________.
二、单项填空(10分)
请阅读下面各小题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卷上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分)
26. Our teacher was very happy because _____failed the examination.
A. somebody B. nobody C. anybody D. everybody.
27.Ther will be less pollution ___more people use public transportation .
A. but B. though C. unless D. if
28.Fresh food is good for you . But you have to ¬¬¬_______it first because sometimes it a little dirty.
A. taste B. smell C. wash D. plant
29.There are lots of _____that students have to follow in school.
A. exercises B. problems C. skills D. rules
30.—Ben and Sue aren’t home,are they?
—No.They _____to London on business.
A.have gone B.go C.have been D.will go
31. —The scarves are all beautiful.I can’t decide which one to choose.
—Oh,look at this red one.I think it’s______.
A.beautiful B.more beautiful
C..the most beautiful D.less beautiful
32—Nathan likes his job because he ______enjoy the beauty of nature.
A.can B.must C.should D.is supposed to
33. —I lost my ticket,but______the travel agent gave me another one.
A.actually B.firstly C.luckily D.exactly
34.—Do you have any plans for tonight?
—Yes ,I____at the new Italian restaurant in town.
A.eat B.have eaten C.ate D.am going to eat
35.You can’t wear shoes inside this place.It_____.
A.doesn’t allow B.isn’t allowed
C.hasn’t allowed D.wasn’t allowed
三、完形填空(25分)
A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卷上将该项涂黑(每小题1分)
Most of us have three meals a day .We take food for granted(想当然)。And we don’t think about it. 36 experts argue a food crisis(危机)is coming.This crisis is going to make us 37 the way we think about food.
Food is in great need 38 a growing of world population.By 1960,the population was three billion.It doubled to six billion by 1999.By 2050,this planet will need to 39 at least nine billion people.As a result,the food prices get higher and higher.
So,what can a 40 ,crowed world do?One suggestion is to eat 41 meat.Meat uses more natural resources(资源)than grains(谷物) .It requires more 42 to produce one pound of meat than to produce one pound of grain. It also requires between 5 and 10 times more 43 than vegetables. So ,eating less meat will 44 more land for farming,and it will save water.
To eats less meat,people will need to change their eating habits. That will not be 45 .Americans, for example,have 46 loved meat. In general, They eat twice as much meat as people in other countries.At the same time,in developing countries like China and Brazil,sales of meat have doubled in the last 20 years. 47 will double again by 2050.Growing need of meat wil 48 to put pressure on natural resources.
World population is increasing,resources are becoming fewer,and food prices are rising.Therefore, we need to rethink 49 we eat every day. For meat lovers, we don’t need to give up meat 50 .But we need to eat more grains and less meat.
36.A.And B.But C.Or D.Until
37.A.change B.find C.get D.tell
38.A.instead of B.thanks to C.because of D.as for
39.A.help B.have C.feed D.meet
40.A.busy B.tired C.thirsty D.hungry
41.A.less B.more C.much D.little
42.A.time B.land C.people D.place
43.A.air B.meat C.money D.water
44. A. provide B. produce C. waste D. need
45. A. important B. hard C. easy D. necessary
46. A. never B. seldom C. hardly D. always
47. A. It B. They C. We D. That
48. A. continue B. stop C. have D. start
49. A. how B. when C. what D. where
50. A. quickly B. completely C. finally D. especially
B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框所给的词的适当形式填空,并将答案填写到答题卷的相应位置,每个词限用一次。(每小题1分)
Animals are important in Indian culture and are treaded in a special way. For example, a lot of elephants aren’t 51 . they are domesticated(驯养). They aren’t kept as pets, but as working animals. Every working elephant 52 its own keeper. An elephant and its keep meet for the first time when they are both young, and they grow up together. In fact, their relationship continues for the rest of the elephant’s 53 perhaps 40 years. Lots of elephants work in the forest, moving heavy 54 when they are cut down. Some give rides to tourists, or 55 people during celebrations and festivals. Keepers take excellent care of their elephants , feeding them 56 and giving them a bath at the end of the working day.
57 special animal in India is the cow. Cows are protected animals, 58 they aren’t kept on farms or killed for food, although people do use their milk. So in India you can often see cows walking around towns and cities, and nobody tries 59 them. If they sit down in the middle of the road, people 60 drive around them! Do you think it’s interesting?
四、阅读理解(40分)
A)请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题 所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卷上将该项涂黑。(每小题2分)
A
61.Where can we get funny cards when we visit English?
A. In the Cartoon Museum. B. On Stratford Butterfly Farm.
C. At Cox’s Hotel. D. At Cox’s pub.
62. Which is the proper time to go to the pub at Cox’s Hotel?
A. 9:00-18:00 on Friday. B. 10:30-17:30 on Tuesday.
C. 12:00-1:30 on Saturday. D. 10:00-16:30 on Monday.
63.How much should four college students pay for a visit to Startford Butterfly Farm?
A. £ 16. B. £ 32. C. £ 18. D. £ 22.
B
Have you ever wanted to achieve something really amazing in life? Well, Greg Mortenson wanted to climb a mountain, but he ended up helping thousands of people to have a better life.
Greg’s story began with failure. In 1993, he set out to climb K2, the world’s second highest mountain. But Greg never made it to the top. After five days, he stumbled(踉跄)into the village of Korphe in northern Pakistan, injured(受伤)and hungry. The kind villagers there looked after him for several days.
Greg saw that the villagers were very poor and hungry, and some of them were ill. Also, the village school didn’t have a roof(屋顶)and the children wrote on the ground with sticks. Greg knew he wanted to do something to help. “ I’ll build you a school,” he told the villagers. “ I promise.”
Greg went back home to the USA to raise money for the school. He even lived in the car to save money! Finally he went back to Korphe and built the school. But this was just the beginning of something bigger! Since then, Greg’s organization has built around 80 schools and runs many others in Pakistan and other countries, too.
Greg hasn’t finished yet. He does many other things to help people in poor countries. He has got many prizes, but it’s the smiles of the children he has helped that makes him happy!
Greg has just written a best-selling book about his story called Three Cups of Tea. It’s an interesting and exciting book which tells us what ordinary(普通的)people can do with courage and determination(决心)!
64.What was wrong with Greg when he got to the village for the first time?
A. He fell ill. B. He was badly hurt and hungry.
C. He lost his way. D. He failed in his business.
65.How did Greg keep his promise to build a school?
A. He raised and saved money.
B. He did business to make money.
C. He wrote a book to sell for money.
D. He borrowed money from his friends.
66.What does the underlined word “this” refer to?
A. Saving money. B. Living in the car.
C. Raising money. D. Building the school.
67.What’s the main idea of this passage?
A. Building schools can help people to have a better life.
B. We have to do something in return to those who help us.
C. Ordinary people can make a difference to people’s lives.
D. Climbing mountains is a good start to help poor people.
C
Today there are many fires than in the past. Over 100,000 wildfires burn each year in America. Russia has 20,000 to 35,000 wildfires every year. Australia has on average 60,000 each year. These fires destroy(损害)huge areas of forests and burn hundreds of homes.
Many experts believe there are several reasons for this sudden increase in fires. The first reason is climate(气候)change. Recent weather has been warmer and drier. This leads to dangerous fire conditions. When lightening strikes(发生雷电),dry grass easily catches fire. Hot winds add to the problem. The wind spreads a fire quickly. In 2010, Russia had the hottest and driest summer in a century. In just one month, 500 fires destroyed over 2,000 homes. Some people lost their lives.
Traditional fire-fighting practices are another reason for the increase in fires. In America, firefighters used to quickly put out every fire. They didn’t allow the grass and trees to burn. As a result, today many forests have thicker vegetation(植被).Thicker vegetation means more fuel(燃料)for fires. Also, without fires from time to time, forests become overcrowded and unhealthy. Some trees are dead. The dead wood then easily catches fire. So surprisingly, America has many more fires today partly because of its past fire-fighting practices.
Scientists now understand that a fire can be a natural part of a healthy forest. As a result, countries like Australia allow more fires to burn naturally. Sometimes, fire fighters even start fires to get rid of(去除)dead wood. Of course, they carefully control the fires. The fire thins out old trees. This allows sunlight to reach the ground. As a result, fires help new trees to grow. Therefore, if a fire is not a serious threat(威胁)to people, firefighters may let it burn naturally.
68. Why did Russia have so many fires in one month in 2010?
A. Because lightening spread the fire.
B. Because there was much fuel for fires.
C. Because there were not enough firefighters.
D. Because it was unusually hot, dry and windy.
69. What happens because of the traditional fire-fighting practices in the USA?
A. There are fewer wildfires.
B. Trees and grass become thicker.
C. The weather becomes warmer and drier.
D. Sunlight reaches the ground to help forests.
70. What is the main idea of Paragraph 4?
A. Fires are serious threats to human beings.
B. Australian firefighters don’t put out fires.
C. Fires can play an important role I forests.
D. It’s difficult for firefighters to control the fires.
71. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. Not all the fires in the forests must be put out.
B. People’s carelessness leads to dangerous fires.
C. Australia allows all the fires to burn naturally.
D. There are more fires in Russia than in the USA.
D
The first part of a new science-fiction series (系列剧)was shown on NBC last night. Star Trek is about a spacecraft(宇宙飞船)which travels faster than the speed of light. The show is developed from three ideas about the 22nd century. First, we’ll find other life forms great tools which will make amazing things possible.
Let’s think about these predictions. If we find life forms on other planets, will they be intelligent? I hope so. But we human beings might not be friendly – I don’t think we’ll believe in the idea o fpeace one hundred years from now. But this is science fiction, so we can be optimistic! And Star Trek’s idea of life in the future is ‘communicators’. And we will be ablt to have conversatins with people who are on because you’ll have an electronic notebook. And if you get ill, the doctor won’t have to examine you – a machine will ‘read’ your body. The strangest manchine includes a ‘teleport’ which will take people to a different placein a second!
The ideas are interesting, and in my opinion there’s only one problem with star trek: the acting. The TV company (公司)will have to get better actors. If they do that, the show might be a success. If the acting doesn’t improve, Star Trek won’t last for more than one series. Of course, my prediction may be wrong. I can’t see into the future!
72. What is Star Trek?
A. A TV play. B. A popular song. C. A spacecraft. D. An alien.
73. What does the underlined word “optimistic” mean?
A. Lucky and happy. B. Hopeful and confident.
C. Helpful and creative. D. Thankful and popular.
74. What’s the writer’s opinion about Star Trek?
A. The life forms on other planets are stupid.
B. Interesting ideas make a new series popular.
C. The new series might not be successful without better actors.
75. Which would be the best title for the passage?
A. Aliens on Other Planets. B. The Idea of Human Life.
C. A Science Fiction. D. A New Series about Future.
B) 请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个还原到文中,使短文意思通顺、结构完整,并在答题卷上将其序号涂黑。(每小题2分)
Hip-hop Planet
76 Countrieslike France, Brazil and even Japan have their own hip-hop culture. But where did this strange speaking-singing style come from? Many centuries ago, in West Africa, traditional storytellers played musical instruments while they were telling stories. When this tradition travelled from West Africa to the USA, it developed into different musical styles. For example, blues and jazz. 77 And in the 1970s, there were many poor areas in New York. There wasn’t any money for music lessons in schools, so kids made their own music. Teenagers Afrika and DJ Here played their records outside in the streets. Everybody joined in. MCs had rapping(说唱) competitions. Every week, there were talented new dancers, new DJs and new MCs. Hip-hop culture was born.
78 It was 1980. I was at a party in New York. There was a young DJ at the party. He was playing records. While he was putting a record on, a kid picked up a microphone(话筒) and begantapping. Some other kids were break-dancing to the music. It was loud and boring, and I
hated it. I preferred jazz.
79 Today’s successful American artists like Missy and her friend Tim heard it on the radio when they were growing up.
The last time I heard hip-hop, I was in West Africa. 80 I was going to interview a traditional storyteller when I met a young hip-hop artist, He told me there are hundreds of rap groups in Africa today. We live on a hip-hop planet.
A. I remember the first time I heard hip-hop.
B. You can find hip-hop everywhere you go.
C. I was writing a book about African-Americans.
D. Many Americans gave music lessons to poor children.
E. These styles all started in poor African-American areas.
F. During the 1980s, hip-hop became popular all over the USA.
G. Some people don’t like hip-hop because of its spoken words.
五、补全对话(5分)
(D=Darren, C= Carol)
D: Hi, Caro! 81
C: Oh, hi, Darren. I’m just getting ready for the Red Nose Day concert tomorrow.
D: Oh really? Well, I’m free this afternoon. 82
C:Actually, I’ve nearly finished. Jim and I are going to put up some ads later, though. Could you please help us with that?
D: 83
C: That’s wonderful! Oh, there’s one more thing. Would you mind coming early tomorrow to help sell tickets at the door?
D: Not at all, 84
C: Around six would be great.
D: OK. 85
C: Great. Thanks, Darren.
六、书面表达(15分)
英文有句谚语 “East, wast, home’s best.” 某英文报以此为标题, 向广大中学生征文。请根据下面图表信息写一篇短文,介绍你家的情况。 内容包括:你家的居室及居住环境、家庭成员及家庭成员之间的关系, 并谈谈如何让你的家更美好。
提示: 1. 短文应包括图表中的全部信息,条理清楚,行文连贯;
2. 短文中不能出现真实的人名和地名;
3. 词数不少于80, 开头已给出, 不计入总词数。
East, wast, home’s best
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